The past two Sundays we have looked at six emphases John the Baptist had in his preaching ministry that pointed to Jesus as the Savior. We have affirmed that John engaged in pre-evangelism and post-evangelism. In each of these, John taught that God’s moral law (he mentions four of the last five of the Ten Commandments in Luke 3:10-14) still applies to us.
Many Christians have concluded that God’s law no longer applies to Christians at all. Such a position is called Antinomianism. I wanted to address this way of thinking in this post and then explain how the moral law still applies.
Antinomianism, “which means being ‘antilaw,’ is a name for several views that have denied that God’s law in Scripture should directly control the Christian life.”[1]
The primary reason that Christians conclude that the law of God no longer applies to them is because the New Testament says we are “not under law” (Rom. 6:14, 15; Gal. 3:23) and elsewhere it says that we are “under the law of Christ” (1 Cor. 9:21; Gal. 6:2) and the “law of liberty” (Jm. 1:25; 2:12), and finally it says that “Christ is the end of the law” (Rom. 10:4). Yet, when we understand these texts correctly, we come to see that the Bible is not teaching that the law of God does not apply to Christians.
More specifically, here are some reasons we know that the moral law of God still applies to Christians. By moral law of God, I mean all laws in the Old Testament that were always intended to be permanently applicable to the people of God. Dietary, cleanliness, sacrificial, and festival laws were temporary by design and fulfilled in Christ with the result that once he came, died, and was raised, they were no longer applicable (Col. 2:16-17; Heb.8:5).
1. In those New Testament books that speak of God’s people no longer being under the law of God (Romans, 1 Corinthians, Galatians), we either see specific Old Testament laws being still applied to Christians (Romans 13:8-10)—which strongly implies that the phrase cannot mean God’s law no longer applies, an explanation that the meaning of that phrase means, “No longer under the law covenant or system” (Gal. 3:15-29), or it is clearly said that being not under or outside the law of God does not mean being outside the moral law of God, aka the Law of Christ (1 Cor. 9:21).
2. The Law of Christ seems to be synonymous with the law of God and, most likely means the same as the law of liberty, namely the focus is that now, under the New Covenant, God’s people, united to Christ and permanently indwelt by the Spirit, have more liberty and Christi-given ability to obey God’s moral will, his law.
3. The careful reader of the New Testament sees clear references to Old Testament laws still being applicable to the New Covenant believer (e.g. Rom. 1:26-28; 7:7; 13:8-10; 1 Cor. 6:9-10; James 4:11-12; 1 John 2:15-17; 3:4; 5:3, 21).
4. The New Testament is positive toward God’s laws, not negative (e.g. James 4:11-12; 1 John 3:4; 5:3), implying that it is consistent with and not opposed to the gospel (1 Cor. 9:21; 1 Tim. 8-12).
If the law still applies to Christians, in what way does it? Another way to ask this is what are the purposes of the law for Christians? There are three that the Church has historically acknowledged from the Bible.
1. It shows the person that they are a sinner, that is, that they fall short of the glory of God, and thus need a Savior (Luke 3:10-14, 19-20; Rom. 7:7).
2. It shows a Christian how to live once they have come to Christ (e.g. Luke 3:10-14; Rom. 13:8-10; 1 Cor. 6:9-10).
3. It serves to restrain unregenerate society so that it is not as bad as it could be (1 Tim. 1:8-11). Because of this, then, the Christian can follow God’s direction in his law for how to shape the public square.
May we say about God’s Law, as the psalmist does (Psalm 19:7, 10): “The Law of the Lord is perfect…. More to be desired are [God’s laws] than gold, even much fine gold; sweeter also than honey and drippings of the honeycomb.”
Joyfully Loving God’s Law With You,
Tom
